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sujoy
07-27-2005, 10:35 AM
the ques is :
we know that greater side has greater angle opposite to it & we also know that if sides of a triangle be ( a,b,c) where the opposite points of a are A& soon B&C
then
a/sinA=b/sinB=c/sinC=const then can we say that in a triangle the sides are proportional to the sin of the angles to be more accurate or can we saythat they are inversely proportional to the cos of the angles?
regards
sujoy

tkhunny
07-27-2005, 11:41 AM
Maybe if the sine and cosine were inverses. They aren't.

soroban
07-27-2005, 10:03 PM
Hello, sujoy!


a/(sin A) = b/(sin B) = c/(sin C) = constant

then can we say that in a triangle the sides are proportional to the sin of the angles? . . . yes!

or can we say that they are inversely proportional to the cos of the angles? . . . no

As tkhunny pointed out, this would be true
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1
. . . if .sin A .= . -------- . . . . . . but, of course, this is not true.
. . . . . . . . . . . . .cos A

sujoy
07-30-2005, 10:21 AM
thanks everybody for clearing my doubts
regards
sujoy