Why does 3x = x?

KindofSlow

Junior Member
Joined
Mar 5, 2010
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90
Book says:
sin^2(3x) + cos^2(3x) = sin^2(x) + cos^2(x), which of course equals 1 as it is a pythagorean identity.
I cannot figure out why we are allowed to just drop the coefficient 3 and say that, in this situation, 3x = x.
Any clarification will be appreciated.
Thank you
 
From: sin^2(3x) + cos^2(3x) = sin^2(x) + cos^2(x).
Everything is the same except the 3x becomes an x.
 
KindofSlow said:
From: sin^2(3x) + cos^2(3x) = sin^2(x) + cos^2(x).
Everything is the same except the 3x becomes an x.

No, just because the function values are equal for two x-values does not mean the x-values are equal
to each other.

Example:

\(\displaystyle (-1)^2 = (1)^2,\) but we know that \(\displaystyle -1 \ne 1\).
 
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