KindofSlow
Junior Member
- Joined
- Mar 5, 2010
- Messages
- 90
Book says:
sin^2(3x) + cos^2(3x) = sin^2(x) + cos^2(x), which of course equals 1 as it is a pythagorean identity.
I cannot figure out why we are allowed to just drop the coefficient 3 and say that, in this situation, 3x = x.
Any clarification will be appreciated.
Thank you
sin^2(3x) + cos^2(3x) = sin^2(x) + cos^2(x), which of course equals 1 as it is a pythagorean identity.
I cannot figure out why we are allowed to just drop the coefficient 3 and say that, in this situation, 3x = x.
Any clarification will be appreciated.
Thank you