Ways to prove surjectivity without inverse functions?

sjl

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I'm currently taking a course in (absolute) basics of mathematical proofs, and have this far been able to prove how a mapping (function) is surjection by taking an inverse of the function and then showing how putting the (right) inverse as input to the original function (ie. composing the function and its inverse), the result is identity.

This works just fine with linear functions, but gets (from my point of view at least) impossible with higher order polynomials with more than one term. For example, let f be a mapping from real numbers to real numbers such that f(x) = 7x^3 - 28x^2, and let us say that I'd like to show this function to be (or not to be) surjection.

It's clear that f is not an injection, since f(4) = 0 and f(0) = 0. Though this doesn't rule out a right inverse, and I think there is one, I have no idea how to find it.

However, I'm pretty sure there is a right inverse of f(x) = 7x^3-28x, so f should be surjection. Its graph hints at the same thing and I think 3. degree polynomial functions were said to be surjections. So, I think f is surjection, and would like to show it to be more than just a hunch.

Is there a way to prove from the definition of surjective (definition I'm working with: "if f: X -> Y is surjective, then for every y in Y there is an x in X for which f(x) = y") that the f above ie. f(x) = 7x^3 - 28x^2 is surjection?

In order to prove that the example f from above is surjection, I'd have to show that for any y in Y there is an x for which f(x) = y. The only way I can think of doing that is finding the (right) inverse of f(x) = 7x^3 - 28x^2 and then showing that composition of f and its inverse is the identity function.

With some algebra and remembering the zero product rule, I can be assure myself that the cubic function f I have cooked up has three real roots (x = 0 twice and x = -4 once). So, it seems to be the case that for some k in real numbers 7x^3 - 28x^2 - k = 0. And here I'd normally proceed by finding the inverse by solving for x, but this is exactly what I'd like to avoid (since I've got no idea how to get the right inverse of a cubic function).
 
A good starting point (not for a proof, but for ideas) is to graph the function:
1599749371032.png

Clearly this does not have an inverse function! (It does have an inverse relation, however; any relation does. And even if a cubic has an inverse function, it is very difficult to write it out, and for higher degrees it will be literally impossible.)

But also, clearly it is a surjection. Do you see why? In fact, every cubic function is a surjection. Do you see why?

As for a proof, you want to show that for any real number y, there is (at least one) x such that f(x) = y. I'm not sure there's an easy way to do this (within the scope of your course); my first thoughts have to do with continuity and limits. But I may be missing something "obvious".

Am I right in assuming that this is not an assignment, but your own musing?
 
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