Hi guys, I am stuck at some point in the exercise below and I have to ask for help.
Suppose the conditional pdf of y, given x is \(\displaystyle \displaystyle \frac {2(1+x^2)}{(1+x+y)^3}\) for \(\displaystyle \displaystyle 0<x<\infty,\ 0<y<\infty\)
Then compute E(1+x+y|x) for a fixed x, and use the result to compute E(y|x).
My main problem is that the resulting integral using these limits of integration is not convergent, unless of course I done something wrong.
\(\displaystyle \displaystyle \int_0^\infty \int_0^\infty \frac {2(1+x^2)}{(1+x+y)^2}\ \mathrm dy\mathrm dx\) after multiplying with 1+x+y.
The inner integral yields \(\displaystyle \ \displaystyle 2(1+x^2)\int_0^\infty \frac {1}{(1+x+y)^2}\mathrm dy = -2(1+x^2)[\frac{1}{(1+x+y)}]_0^\infty = \frac {2(1+x^2)}{(1+x)}\)
And now the outer integral: \(\displaystyle \displaystyle 2 \int_0^\infty \frac {1+x^2}{(1+x)} \mathrm dx\) which after integrating by parts twice gives \(\displaystyle \displaystyle ln(1+x)[(1+x^2)+1]-\frac{x}{1+x}\) which is not convergent if x tends to infinity. So the expectation does not exist. Is what I have done correct though?
Thanks in advance.
Suppose the conditional pdf of y, given x is \(\displaystyle \displaystyle \frac {2(1+x^2)}{(1+x+y)^3}\) for \(\displaystyle \displaystyle 0<x<\infty,\ 0<y<\infty\)
Then compute E(1+x+y|x) for a fixed x, and use the result to compute E(y|x).
My main problem is that the resulting integral using these limits of integration is not convergent, unless of course I done something wrong.
\(\displaystyle \displaystyle \int_0^\infty \int_0^\infty \frac {2(1+x^2)}{(1+x+y)^2}\ \mathrm dy\mathrm dx\) after multiplying with 1+x+y.
The inner integral yields \(\displaystyle \ \displaystyle 2(1+x^2)\int_0^\infty \frac {1}{(1+x+y)^2}\mathrm dy = -2(1+x^2)[\frac{1}{(1+x+y)}]_0^\infty = \frac {2(1+x^2)}{(1+x)}\)
And now the outer integral: \(\displaystyle \displaystyle 2 \int_0^\infty \frac {1+x^2}{(1+x)} \mathrm dx\) which after integrating by parts twice gives \(\displaystyle \displaystyle ln(1+x)[(1+x^2)+1]-\frac{x}{1+x}\) which is not convergent if x tends to infinity. So the expectation does not exist. Is what I have done correct though?
Thanks in advance.
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