Here's my question:
-Let's say there were two seperate lotteries (like Powerball & Mega Millions)
-Let's say both lotteries had odds of winning the jackpot at 1 in 50 million.
-Both lotteries were drawn on the same night.
- You have 1 ticket for each lottery
- What are the odds of winning BOTH jackpots that night? Is it 1 in 100 million, still 1 in 50 million because they are seperate drawings, or something different completely?
-Let's say there were two seperate lotteries (like Powerball & Mega Millions)
-Let's say both lotteries had odds of winning the jackpot at 1 in 50 million.
-Both lotteries were drawn on the same night.
- You have 1 ticket for each lottery
- What are the odds of winning BOTH jackpots that night? Is it 1 in 100 million, still 1 in 50 million because they are seperate drawings, or something different completely?