Covariance of two random variables

p.lucia.p

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Nov 8, 2013
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I wanted to ask can someone explain to me how to prove this implication:
If Y is a random variable that has finite second moments and distribution symmetric about 0, then the covariance of Y and the absolute value of Y is zero.
Any help you can provide is greatly appreciated, thank you in advance!
 
I wanted to ask can someone explain to me how to prove this implication:
If Y is a random variable that has finite second moments and distribution symmetric about 0, then the covariance of Y and the absolute value of Y is zero.
Any help you can provide is greatly appreciated, thank you in advance!

The question doesn't makes sense to me. Covariance is something for comparing two random distributions and you have mentioned one random variable. As far as an absolute value of Y being zero, that would contradict the fact that it is a random distribution since the sum (definite integration) must be 1 and the sum (definite integral) of 0 is zero.
 
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