fisher garrry
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- Dec 11, 2017
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In the proof for proposition 3.1 they use the limits 0 to a. In (3.2) they use integration limits \(\displaystyle -\infty\) to \(\displaystyle \infty\). The gamma function is defined from 0 to \(\displaystyle \infty\). Why is then not the integration limits in the proof for proposition 3.1 0 to \(\displaystyle \infty\) as (3.2) limits are constrained to possible values for the distribution as far as I can see? And what are then the limits they use to integrate to find the value for C in the proof for proposition 3.1?
The theory is taken from Ross A first course in probability
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