Hi everyone! I am new here and have a math issue I could use some help with. I have $73653.50 to distribute to 2 types of employees. Type 1 has 58.9 allocations and type 2 has 27.5 allocations. Type 1 is supposed to receive 20% more per full allocation. Any idea on how to solve that issue? Any help would be greatly appreciated! Thanks!
You misunderstood tkhunny's answer.
He calculated that 1 share is worth approximately 750.18843. He explicitly based that calculation on your statement that each allocation in type 1 got 20% more than each allocation in type 2. Where you say?
\(\displaystyle 100\% + 20\% = \dfrac{100}{100} + \dfrac{20}{100} = 1 + 0.2 = 1.2.\)
With all the fractions you have, an exact answer is impossible so you must simplify and set each share at 750.
He assumed that you would realize that meant each of the 58.9 allocations in type 1 gets 1.2 shares or 900 for a total of 53,010. Note that the 0.9 allocation gets 0.9 times 1.2 = 1.08 shares, and 1.08 times 750 = 810, which is indeed 90% of 900. Each of the 27.5 allocations of type 2 gets 1 share or 750 for a total of 20625. The allocation of 0.5 gets half a share or 375.
How does that work out? 20% of 750 is 150 and 750 + 150 = 900. Looks good so far.
53010 + 20625 = 73,635, which is quite close to 73,653.50. If the fact that there is a difference of 18.50 is going to cause a fuss, you will need to up the pot. Whoever designed this scheme clearly never understood the mess that fractions were going to cause.
