onemachine
New member
- Joined
- Feb 2, 2012
- Messages
- 28
Does there exist a function from the Reals to the Power Set of the Naturals such that IF x < y, THEN f(x) is a subset of f(y) AND f(x) does not equal f(y)?
a) Yes
b) No
c) Nobody knows
...edit: by "Nobody knows" I mean nobody in the world (i.e. the question has not yet been proven or disproven), not nobody in this forum. I don't expect a proof...just an answer with a concise explanation. Thanks!
a) Yes
b) No
c) Nobody knows
...edit: by "Nobody knows" I mean nobody in the world (i.e. the question has not yet been proven or disproven), not nobody in this forum. I don't expect a proof...just an answer with a concise explanation. Thanks!
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