Substitution with sec yields different result?

Allen_T

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This is an example from another website(http://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/Classes/CalcII/TrigSubstitutions.aspx):

when evaluating this integral:
eq0003MP.gif

we made this substitution:
eq0005MP.gif

and got this:
eq0006MP.gif

eq0008MP.gif

and then the websites say that "since we are doing an indefinite integral we will assume that
eq0013MP.gif
empty.gif
eq0013M.gif
empty.gif
will be positive and so we can drop the absolute value bars"

My question is, why is such assumption legal? Thanks!!!
 

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No, it is NOT. What "websites" say that? (You could, of course, add "\(\displaystyle \pm\)" later.)
 
This is an example from another website(http://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/Classes/CalcII/TrigSubstitutions.aspx):

when evaluating this integral:
eq0003MP.gif

we made this substitution:
eq0005MP.gif

and got this:
eq0006MP.gif

eq0008MP.gif

and then the websites say that "since we are doing an indefinite integral we will assume that
eq0013MP.gif
empty.gif
eq0013M.gif
empty.gif
will be positive and so we can drop the absolute value bars"

My question is, why is such assumption legal? Thanks!!!

As far as I know

\(\displaystyle \sqrt{x^2} \ = \ x\) and NOT = -x
 
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