I suppose it's two questions I have really. Firstly, whether or not I evaluated the following integral correctly by partial fractions, and secondly if I did, then if part of the answer for a definite integral is undefined, is the whole thing undefined? My guess is that it's not and it just depends on your interpretation of what the integration actually means in a specific application..
Thanks in advance, and please excuse where there should be a minus sign before the last term of the final answer.
Thanks in advance, and please excuse where there should be a minus sign before the last term of the final answer.