"4X More Than" = What PERCENTAGE More than?

A

adventurecapitalist

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Here's an equation I can't find on Google, because I don't know how to phrase it to make Google even understand what I mean...

Let's say you get 1 client per week, and then you do something to get 2 clients per week, you have 2x (two times) more clients, yes?
And I believe that would be 100% more clients?

So....

2X more (two times more) = 100% more

... am I right so far?

So if an ad I create gets "80% more conversions" that equates to....How many TIMES more conversions? Like 1.8X?

And put in the opposite way...

If something gets 4X (four times) as many results, does that equate to 800% increase in results?

Is there a simple equation here?
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2nd part of question:

Let's say last month I got 10 clients, and this month I got 50 clients. That's 5X as many clients, yes? Meaning 250% more clients?

Also...

What about if one computer cost me $1500 and another one cost me $3200... What is the equation to a) determine how many more TIMES expensive the second one is and b) what PERCENTAGE the second one is more expensive, or the first one is cheaper?


I have all sorts of numbers I am workign with, so it would be nice to just have an equation to plug these numbers into.

thanks in advance!
 
adventurecapitalist said:
Here's an equation I can't find on Google, because I don't know how to phrase it to make Google even understand what I mean...

Let's say you get 1 client per week, and then you do something to get 2 clients per week, you have 2x (two times) more clients, yes?
And I believe that would be 100% more clients?
Click to expand...
No, if you started with 1 (so that 1 is 100% of your clients) and got 2 more then you have 200% more.

So....

2X more (two times more) = 100% more

... am I right so far?
Click to expand...
No, you are not. 2 more is 200% more. Forgetting percents, are you clear on the distinction between "two times as much" and "two times more"?
If you start with 1 and get two more you have three times as much.

So if an ad I create gets "80% more conversions" that equates to....How many TIMES more conversions? Like 1.8X?
Click to expand...
You are confusing two separate ideas. "80%" more us 0.80 times more. That would be 180% or 1.8 of the original amount.

nd put in the opposite way...

If something gets 4X (four times) as many results, does that equate to 800% increase in results?
Click to expand...
4 times A would be 4A= A+ A+ A+ A= A+ 3A so would be a 300% increase (I have no idea how you got 800%).

Is there a simple equation here?
---------------------------------
2nd part of question:

Let's say last month I got 10 clients, and this month I got 50 clients. That's 5X as many clients, yes? Meaning 250% more clients?
Click to expand...
No you 40 more clients which is 4(10) so this is 400%. more.

lso...

What about if one computer cost me $1500 and another one cost me $3200... What is the equation to a) determine how many more TIMES expensive the second one is and b) what PERCENTAGE the second one is more expensive, or the first one is cheaper?
Click to expand...
First calculate how much more expensive: $3200- 1500= $1700. The second computer cost $1700 more than the first. And since that first one cost $1500 that is \(\displaystyle \dfrac{1700}{1500}= \dfrac{17}{15} \ = \)1.13 times as much or 113% more. (Those are rounded from 1.133333333333333....)

I have all sorts of numbers I am workign with, so it would be nice to just have an equation to plug these numbers into.

thanks in advance!
Click to expand...
 
Last edited by a moderator:
HallsofIvy said:
No, if you started with 1 (so that 1 is 100% of your clients) and got 2 more then you have 200% more.


No, you are not. 2 more is 200% more. Forgetting percents, are you clear on the distinction between "two times as much" and "two times more"?
If you start with 1 and get two more you have three times as much.


You are confusing two separate ideas. "80%" more us 0.80 times more. That would be 180% or 1.8 of the original amount.


4 times A would be 4A= A+ A+ A+ A= A+ 3A so would be a 300% increase (I have no idea how you got 800%).


No you 40 more clients which is 4(10) so this is 400%. more.


First calculate how much more expensive: $3200- 1500= $1700. The second computer cost $1700 more than the first. And since that first one cost $1500 that is \(\displaystyle \dfrac{1700}{1500}= \dfrac{17}{15} \ = \)1.13 times as much or 113% more. (Those are rounded from 1.133333333333333....)
Click to expand...

Thank you very much for your detailed response. I didn't realize the correlation between the "blank TIMES more" and "blank PERCENT more" was so direct...

From what you explained, I understand that...

80% more = .8 times more

200% more = 2 times more

You are confusing two separate ideas. "80%" more us 0.80 times more. That would be 180% or 1.8 of the original amount.
Click to expand...
It's not so much that I am "confusing" 2 separate ideas (although I do agree I was not clear) - rather that I was trying to find an EQUATION to translate BETWEEN the two ideas (those 2 ideas being "___ PERCENT more" and "____ TIMES more". I know they are different, but I was wondering if there was an equation to translate one into the other.

From what you explained it seems the translation is more simple...:

80% more = .8 times more
100% more = 1 times more (this one doesn't seem right though...)
200% more = 2 times more


... am I right in understanding that was what you are saying?
 
adventurecapitalist said:
From what you explained it seems the translation is more simple...:

80% more = .8 times more
100% more = 1 times more (this one doesn't seem right though...)
200% more = 2 times more

... am I right in understanding that was what you are saying?
Click to expand...

Yes, the above relationships are correct. As for your uncertainty that the 100% one is right, you can apply the exact same logic to all of them and see that it must be correct. If you have 80% more, then you have 100% (all of what you started with) plus 80%, for a total of 180%, or 1.8 times as much. Thus, it is 0.8 times more than what you started with. If you have 200% more, that gives you 100% + 200% = 300% or 3 times as much. That's 2 times more. Finally, with 100% more, you have 100% + 100% = 200% or 2 times as much. That's 1 times more.

To further cement your understanding of the concept, you might consider the relationship between the percentages in the above examples, and how many "times more" each represents. What mathematical operation did you perform to get from percent to "times more?" How does that correlate with the information that percent means "per hundred?" Do you think the relationship you've identified holds for any percentage increase? Why or why not?
 
ksdhart2 said:
Yes, the above relationships are correct. As for your uncertainty that the 100% one is right, you can apply the exact same logic to all of them and see that it must be correct. If you have 80% more, then you have 100% (all of what you started with) plus 80%, for a total of 180%, or 1.8 times as much. Thus, it is 0.8 times more than what you started with. If you have 200% more, that gives you 100% + 200% = 300% or 3 times as much. That's 2 times more. Finally, with 100% more, you have 100% + 100% = 200% or 2 times as much. That's 1 times more.

To further cement your understanding of the concept, you might consider the relationship between the percentages in the above examples, and how many "times more" each represents. What mathematical operation did you perform to get from percent to "times more?" How does that correlate with the information that percent means "per hundred?" Do you think the relationship you've identified holds for any percentage increase? Why or why not?
Click to expand...

Thanks for your helpful explanation, I do appreciate it!

I will think about that equation you presented to me now...
 
ksdhart2 said:
If you have 80% more, then you have 100% (all of what you started with) plus 80%, for a total of 180%, or 1.8 times as much. Thus, it is 0.8 times more than what you started with.
Click to expand...

ok, this part is blowing my mind a bit (majored in foreign languages, not a math person here..)...

so "times AS MUCH" is a completely different concept than "times MORE THAN".... or at least they are not interchangeable....?
 
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