Suppose that [imath]X[/imath] is the number of the toss upon which the first six appears and is such that for any [imath]T<X[/imath] on toss [imath]T[/imath] a three does not appear.If a die is thrown repeatedly ,what is the probability that a 6 is obtained before a 3 turns up.
Well done, yes they are correct. Can you find [imath]\sum\limits_{k = 1}^\infty {\left( {\frac{1}{6}} \right){{\left( {\frac{4}{6}} \right)}^{k - 1}}}~?[/imath] And what is the point?P(X=1)=1/6 means that that we tossed the die once and and we obtained a 6 .
P(X=2)=(1/6)*(4/6) means that we tossed the die twice ,the first time we obtained any number other than 3 and 6,the second time we obtained a 6.
P(2<X)=(1/6)*(4/6)^(X−1) means that we tossed the die X times :For the first (X-1)th time a 3 and 6 didn't appear but for the X th time a six appeared for the first time
Would that be correct ?
That would be the sum of the probabilities of the event 6 appears for the first time the k th time and no six or three appear any of the (k-1)th times ,hence the probability that a 6 is obtained before a 3 turns up.Well done, yes they are correct. Can you find [imath]\sum\limits_{k = 1}^\infty {\left( {\frac{1}{6}} \right){{\left( {\frac{4}{6}} \right)}^{k - 1}}}~?[/imath] And what is the point?
This is only obvious if you happen to look at it from the right perspective -- which is probably not the perspective most students will come to the question with, expecting to use standard methods like pka's.There is a 50-50 chance that a 6 will be rolled before a 3. This should have been clear from the start. That is, the probability that a 6 occurs before a 3 is 1/2.