Simple Differentiation Question

eutas1

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Apr 8, 2021
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Hello, I am completely stuck on this super simple differentiation question. It's literally the first question on a past exam. How do you do this without identities (as I have not learnt any)? I tried using the quotient rule but I did not get the same answer...
Please refer to the attached for the question + answer.
Thank you!
 

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If [imath]f[/imath] is differentiable function if [imath]x[/imath] then [imath]D_x\left(\dfrac{1}{f}\right)=\left(\dfrac{-f'}{f^2}\right)[/imath]
 
If [imath]f[/imath] is differentiable function if [imath]x[/imath] then [imath]D_x\left(\dfrac{1}{f}\right)=\left(\dfrac{-f'}{f^2}\right)[/imath]
wait i just realised what i did wrong - i made the derivative of 1 equal to 1 instead of 0.... so stupid! thank you for your time :)
 
wait i just realised what i did wrong - i made the derivative of 1 equal to 1 instead of 0.... so stupid! thank you for your time :)
You really should not use the quotient rule if either the numerator and/or the denominator is a constant.
(1/f)' = (f-1)' = -1(f-2)f' = -f'/f2
 
You really should not use the quotient rule if either the numerator and/or the denominator is a constant.
(1/f)' = (f-1)' = -1(f-2)f' = -f'/f2
Ah, I see!! I should have realised that. Thank you!
 
I recognise this from the QCAA Methods paper from last year. :)

It is best to rewrite it as \(\displaystyle y= (sin x)^{-1}\) and then use the chain rule to get \(\displaystyle -1.(sin x)^{-2}.cos x =\frac{-cos x}{(sin x)^2}\)

But the quotient rule will still work and give the same answer (although a bit more work is involved). You must have made a simple error when using the quotient rule.

Using the quotient rule:
Let \(\displaystyle u=1\) and \(\displaystyle v= sin x\). So, \(\displaystyle u'=0\) and \(\displaystyle v' = cos x\)

So \(\displaystyle y' =\frac{u'.v - u.v'}{v^2} = \frac{0.sin x - 1.cos x}{(sin x)^2}\) which is the same answer.
 
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