slope of graph

Ryan$

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Jan 25, 2019
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Hi guys, in the definition of slope is slope= (Y2-Y1)/(X2-X1) , my question why it's not for example divided by X1-X2 , why specifically X2-X1 ?! it's weird .. who said that we must take the differentiate of Y and divide it on X2-X1 and not the
X1-X2?

I want to understand, don't want like parrot to just say "it's that it's "..


thanks alot
 
Slope = \(\displaystyle \frac{y_2 - y_1}{x_2 - x_1} \) or \(\displaystyle \frac{y_1 - y_2}{x_1 - x_2}\). They are algebraically equal.

\(\displaystyle \frac{y_2 - y_1}{x_1 - x_2} \) is not algebraically equal, it has the opposite sign.

As we read from left to right, slope is defined as positive if the line slopes upwards to the right and negative if it slopes downwards to the right.

If we swap the order of the y's but not the order of the x's, we contradict the definition. Its as simple as that.
 
Hi guys, in the definition of slope is slope= (Y2-Y1)/(X2-X1) , my question why it's not for example divided by X1-X2 , why specifically X2-X1 ?! it's weird .. who said that we must take the differentiate of Y and divide it on X2-X1 and not the
X1-X2?

I want to understand, don't want like parrot to just say "it's that it's "..


thanks alot
Have you done any literature search before posting?

You are acting like a parrot - you are asking question without doing any research about it!

Go to:


Come back if do not understand any "particular statement" in that article!
 
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