Calculate noninferiority for two correlated nonparametric groups

AceMcAwesome

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Hi, I have two groups of measurements (type A and type B) which were all done on the same set of 1000 objects. A longer measurement is bad, shorter measurement is good. I don't need to show that group B is superior to group A, I just need to show that group B is noninferior to group A. However, both measurement sets are not normally distributed. How do I do this calculation? Thanks!
 
Hi, I have two groups of measurements (type A and type B) which were all done on the same set of 1000 objects. A longer measurement is bad, shorter measurement is good. I don't need to show that group B is superior to group A, I just need to show that group B is noninferior to group A. However, both measurement sets are not normally distributed. How do I do this calculation? Thanks!
What methods have you been taught to make such distinction?

Please show us what you have tried and exactly where you are stuck.

Please follow the rules of posting in this forum, as enunciated at:


Please share your work/thoughts about this problem.
 
But I don't want to look at means when the sets are nonparametric do I? They are not normally distributed
The test is robust, even when the variables are not normally distributed. Second, you have 1000 samples, by the central limit theory, the difference in the means can be modelled by the t-distribution. Third, you can check whether your data is skewed or not by looking at their histogram or dot-plot. If it does not show extreme skewness, it's safe to make that inference.
 
Thanks for the info - looks like you're right about the t-statistic being effective above roughly 20 samples! I hadn't known that.

However the data does kind of look like it shows extreme skewness. Here's a picture of histograms of the two sets:
1644603230525.png
1644603288964.png

Do you think this is too skewed to use Hypothesis Test for a Difference in Two Population Means? This is an example set of 200 data points each; my final dataset will be 1,000 data points each. Thanks!
 
Thanks for the info - looks like you're right about the t-statistic being effective above roughly 20 samples! I hadn't known that.

However the data does kind of look like it shows extreme skewness. Here's a picture of histograms of the two sets:
View attachment 31062
View attachment 31063

Do you think this is too skewed to use Hypothesis Test for a Difference in Two Population Means? This is an example set of 200 data points each; my final dataset will be 1,000 data points each. Thanks!
As you have more samples, it should look more normally distributed. We can't determine if it's too skewed for 1000 samples based on 200 samples.
 
As you have more samples, it should look more normally distributed. We can't determine if it's too skewed for 1000 samples based on 200 samples.
If I'm trying to be statistically careful though, is it really good enough to just visually look at and say it's normally distributed enough? I need to write up an official document with these results so I feel like there must be a statistical normality test I can use instead of just eyesight. When I ran a D’Agostino/Pearson’s normality test on these datasets, it was very non-Gaussian (P<0.001).
 
If I'm trying to be statistically careful though, is it really good enough to just visually look at and say it's normally distributed enough?
That is up to you. Your responsibility is to defend your methodology and findings as there isn't one correct way to do statistical research.
 
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