Fermat's little theorem question

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Darya

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Why does Fermat's little theorem work on primes specifically?IMG_20200708_000512.jpg

Proving this theorem by induction, it seems like it wouldn't make any difference if we didn't mention that p is prime, because we didn't use its properties. What am I missing? Any references?
 
First you agree it's not true if p is not prime, right? You can easily come up with an example.

(I think maybe you forgot that p was prime in your induction hypothesis?) Palm to forehead? :)
 
Last edited:
Darya said:
Why does Fermat's little theorem work on primes specifically?

Proving this theorem by induction, it seems like it wouldn't make any difference if we didn't mention that p is prime, because we didn't use its properties. What am I missing? Any references?
Click to expand...
You'll have to show how you used induction, so we can find the error.
 
Please post your proof so that we can you are correct or point out your error.
 
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