You'll have to show how you used induction, so we can find the error.Why does Fermat's little theorem work on primes specifically?
Proving this theorem by induction, it seems like it wouldn't make any difference if we didn't mention that p is prime, because we didn't use its properties. What am I missing? Any references?
Thanks, found it! I just took this lemma as an axiom for any p € N...? Palm to forehead indeed. Except for not paying attention to this lemma, my proof is alright.Have a look at this page of proofs.