Have I proved Fermat last theorem?

[lrerpqu]

X^4 + Y^4 != Z^4 has been proved by Fermat that if X,Y,Z = integer numbers, the formula is fine. Set x=X^2, y=Y^2, z=Z^2, so x, y, z are (some) integer numbers based on X,Y,Z.

x^4 + y^4 != z^4 //x, y, z are also integer, would be obey to Fermat's Fermat theorem, in which n=4.

X^8 + Y^8 != Z^8 // after replacing x,y,z with X,Y,Z.

In the same way, you can have n=16, 32, 64...

Do these X,Y,Z,n make Fermat theorem?

 

[stapel]

X^4 + Y^4 != Z^4 has been proved by Fermat that if X,Y,Z = integer numbers, the formula is fine. Set x=X^2, y=Y^2, z=Z^2, so x, y, z are (some) integer numbers based on X,Y,Z.

x^4 + y^4 != z^4 //x, y, z are also integer, would be obey to Fermat's Fermat theorem, in which n=4.

X^8 + Y^8 != Z^8 // after replacing x,y,z with X,Y,Z.

In the same way, you can have n=16, 32, 64...

Do these X,Y,Z,n make Fermat theorem?

As mentioned elsewhere: No.

 

[lrerpqu]

50 words, no tricks, no skills in my proof has pushed the number of n to much more than human beings (before Andrew Wiles) record, and also computers record 41 million in 1985, I have no power to extend n to every integer that will make my proof more than 50 words.

 

[fersadilala2]

X^4 + Y^4 != Z^4 has been proved by Fermat that if X,Y,Z = integer numbers, the formula is fine. Set x=X^2, y=Y^2, z=Z^2, so x, y, z are (some) integer numbers based on X,Y,Z.

x^4 + y^4 != z^4 //x, y, z are also integer, would be obey to Fermat's Fermat theorem, in which n=4.

X^8 + Y^8 != Z^8 // after replacing x,y,z with X,Y,Z.

In the same way, you can have n=16, 32, 64...

Do these X,Y,Z,n make Fermat theorem?

Fermat's theorem was proven for n=4, which means that there are no integers X, Y and Z such that X^4 + Y^4 = Z^4. However, changing variables, as you suggested, does not change the essence of Fermat's theorem. That is, if we replace X with X^2, Y with Y^2, and Z with Z^2, then we still won't have integers X, Y and Z such that (X^2)^4 + (Y^2)^4 = (Z^2)^4. Fermat's theorem remains valid, both for n=4 and for all subsequent powers of n, such as n=8, 16, 32, and so on.

Thus, Fermat's theorem remains true for all integers n greater than or equal to 3, including n=4, 8, 16, 32, etc.

 

[lrerpqu]

Fermat's theorem was proven for n=4, which means that there are no integers X, Y and Z such that X^4 + Y^4 = Z^4. However, changing variables, as you suggested, does not change the essence of Fermat's theorem. That is, if we replace X with X^2, Y with Y^2, and Z with Z^2, then we still won't have integers X, Y and Z such that (X^2)^4 + (Y^2)^4 = (Z^2)^4. Fermat's theorem remains valid, both for n=4 and for all subsequent powers of n, such as n=8, 16, 32, and so on.

Thus, Fermat's theorem remains true for all integers n greater than or equal to 3, including n=4, 8, 16, 32, etc.

What you say is almost right, that's why I feel I get a missed proof on Fermat's last theorem. But is there any good link to show that n=8,16,32...has been proved (please not to trick me)?