Yes, you and your professor are absolutely correct----but only if you have more 0's before than 1 than you have 9's after the decimal.
I think that I already proven you wrong by stating that 1.00001*.99999999999 > 1
Saying that you have already proven me wrong, means that you have not read my long post.
1.00001*.99999999999
> 1 is one of my professor cases!
Really? There are functions/series that have a bounded value/sum but at infinity the function/series approaches infinity.
Unfortunately, I can't think of any at the moment. Hopefully someone else will post some functions for us to see.
My mind keeps going to the union and intersection of sets for my example above.
Don't forget that this method was used only when,
\(\displaystyle \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} f(x)g(x) = 1\)
What you are talking about is another thing.
Since [imath]0.99\bar{9}=1 [/imath], then [imath]1.00001\times 0.99\bar{9}=1.00001\times 1 =1.00001>1?[/imath]
Believe it or not,
\(\displaystyle 0.99\bar{9} \neq 1\)
When \(\displaystyle 0.99\bar{9}\) is written as \(\displaystyle 0.99\bar{9} = 1\), it means that the limit of the sequence of partial sums as we add more and more terms is approaching \(\displaystyle 1\).
\(\displaystyle 0.99\bar{9} = \frac{9}{10} + \frac{9}{100} + \frac{9}{1000}..... = 9\left(\frac{1}{10}\right) + 9\left(\frac{1}{10^2}\right) + 9\left(\frac{1}{10^3}\right).....=\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{9}{10^k} = 1\)
This is not even a sum in the usual sense of the word, but rather the limit of the sequence of partial sums.
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\(\displaystyle 1.00001\times 0.99\bar{9} = 1.00001\bar{0}\times 0.99999\bar{9}\)
This is case d.
The position of the digit \(\displaystyle 1\) is not the last digit as you are comparing,
\(\displaystyle 0.99999\bar{9}\)
\(\displaystyle 1.00001\bar{0}\)
\(\displaystyle 1.00001\times 0.99\bar{9} > 1\)