Kulla_9289
Junior Member
- Joined
- Apr 18, 2022
- Messages
- 217
Why is |p|=|q| the same as [imath](p)^2[/imath]=[imath](q)^2[/imath]? How do I prove this?
Once again, it is difficult to answer you because you do not use math notation or precise English. What do you mean “is the same as”?So, |p|=|q| is the same as [imath](p)^4[/imath]=[imath](q)^4[/imath]also, right?
Please try using the ideas you've been given to answer this question yourself. How do those ideas apply? If you only ask questions, and never think for yourself, you can't learn mathematics.Okay. Is [imath]|p|=|q|[/imath] equivalent to [imath](p)^4=(q)^4[/imath], too?
p^2n = p^2*nAlso if you want assuming we are in real numbers as Dr peterson said, you can use the fact that p ^ 2n where n is integer is the same thing as p^2^n so after proving p^2 = q^2 is equivilant to |p| = |q| all other even powers follow as p^2 will imply p^2^n
As if a = b a^n = b^n so p^2 = q^2
So p^2^n = q^2^n
@AbdelRahmanShady note the following...p^2n = p^2*n
p^(2n) = (p^2)^n
I ment that but wrote it wrong@AbdelRahmanShady note the following...
2^3^4 = 2^(3^4) = 2417851639229258349412352 ≠ (2^3)^4
(2^3)^4 = 2^(3*4) = 4096