There was something interesting that I found out when looking at Euler's Identity. If e^(pi*i) = -1 and i^2 = -1 then e^(pi*i) has to equal i^2 to get the equation seen here.
e^{\pi \cdot i} = i^{2}
My question is can you in this equation solve for i and if you can what would you get? Will i...
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