Lagrange multiplier for maximizing a function with two constraints?
Hi everyone.
I'm not that familiar with English math terminology so I hope that you'll bear with me.
Currently, I'm trying to maximize a function with two constraints, but I got stuck because of one of my constraints. My first constraint has both the variables x and y, but my second constraint only has the variabley. The reason why I'm confused by this is that when I proceed to solve the problem, I have no use for the Lagrange multiplier λ. I can simply solve Lλ1=0 and Lλ2=0. This will enough to yield my results (the x and y coordinates). It is frustrating me because I need to put it into words, what I am doing (in terms of using Lagrange multipliers) and why I apparently had to skip the λ all together.
The function that I'm trying to maximize is as follows:
f(x,y)=−0,01x2+395x+100y
My constraints are these:
2x+y=44,000
y=20,000
I know that the correct answer (through using other methods of optimization) is:
x=12,000
y=20,000
The way that I've proceeded to solve this problem is by putting the respective functions and constraints into a formula that was taught at school:
L(x,y,λ1,λ2)=−0,01x2+395x+100y−λ1∗(2x+y−44,000)−λ2∗(y−20,000)
I then proceed by figuring out the partial differentials of L with respect to x, y, λ1 and λ2 to ultimately isolate x and y. I am getting the correct results, but there's no need to solve Lx=0 and Ly=0. This is what's confusing me and what I'm having a hard time putting into words.
Hi everyone.
I'm not that familiar with English math terminology so I hope that you'll bear with me.
Currently, I'm trying to maximize a function with two constraints, but I got stuck because of one of my constraints. My first constraint has both the variables x and y, but my second constraint only has the variabley. The reason why I'm confused by this is that when I proceed to solve the problem, I have no use for the Lagrange multiplier λ. I can simply solve Lλ1=0 and Lλ2=0. This will enough to yield my results (the x and y coordinates). It is frustrating me because I need to put it into words, what I am doing (in terms of using Lagrange multipliers) and why I apparently had to skip the λ all together.
The function that I'm trying to maximize is as follows:
f(x,y)=−0,01x2+395x+100y
My constraints are these:
2x+y=44,000
y=20,000
I know that the correct answer (through using other methods of optimization) is:
x=12,000
y=20,000
The way that I've proceeded to solve this problem is by putting the respective functions and constraints into a formula that was taught at school:
L(x,y,λ1,λ2)=−0,01x2+395x+100y−λ1∗(2x+y−44,000)−λ2∗(y−20,000)
I then proceed by figuring out the partial differentials of L with respect to x, y, λ1 and λ2 to ultimately isolate x and y. I am getting the correct results, but there's no need to solve Lx=0 and Ly=0. This is what's confusing me and what I'm having a hard time putting into words.
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