Is this possible?

[Blockbird]

I'm new and I would like to not ask something but to query something I done accidentally today.

So earlyer today, in the lesson we where learning about rational and irrational numbers, I've known about pi for about 3 years and I know it just reoccurs and does not terminate.

Yet I was messing around with random equations that had pi in when I put this in it:

?(to the power of)-?(to the power of)-?(to the power of)?

So on the calculator, it looks like this: ?-?-??.
Each pi is a power of the previous.

The answer gave a quite scary 1. I have messed with this equation to get obvious results but I've wondered if the human mind cannot get grips around powers like that. Have I just turned pi into a rational number?

I'm 14 so please explain in a way which I can understand.

-Dylan C

 

[daon]

If you calculate this, you will have 1 over a very large number (or complex number with very large real and imaginary parts) as the power of your first base. Hence (pi)^(something really small) ~ 1. Its so close to 1 that it rounds it to 1.

Try this now: 10^((-3)^((-3)^3))

It will likely give you the same thing.

 

[DrMike]

It's not 1, it's 0.9999999999999999991458286228173508540996742247478486517989590988561600435551462026129364360541908939433683554739330621114804866312362040826614087421015528...