An interesting limit

Revolution

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Sep 25, 2011
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Could someone tell me what

lim z->infi+ (Integral[cos^z(x),x ,0 ,pi/2])

is equal to?
 
Could someone tell me what
lim z->infi+ (Integral[cos^z(x),x ,0 ,pi/2])
is equal to?
I am fairly sure that the limit is 0.
Here is why. For any \(\displaystyle t\in (0,\pi/2)\) the sequence \(\displaystyle \cos^n(t)\to 0~.\)
I have not worked out details, but I think that an application of the mean value theorem for integrals will complete the proof.
 
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