I want to prove that a function space can be normed without a inner product, for that, I need to prove this in the L1; I'd tried to solve the axioms for a normed space but I don't get any good result, I don't know how to get the proof of this.
Let be L1(R) the set of all functions such that: ∥∣f∣∣=∫−∞∞∣f(x)∣dxa) Show that ∣∣⋅∣∣ defines a norm for L1(R)
b) Let be f and g two non-zero functions such that at no point x∈R both are different from zero. Verify that:
b.1 ∣∣f±g∣∣=∣∣f∣∣+∣∣g∣∣
b.2 ∣∣f+g∣∣2+∣∣f⋅g∣∣2=2(∣∣f∣∣+∣∣g∣∣)2
b.3 Conclude that the parallelogram law is not satisfied, and therefore, L1(R) is NOT a space with inner product
Let be L1(R) the set of all functions such that: ∥∣f∣∣=∫−∞∞∣f(x)∣dxa) Show that ∣∣⋅∣∣ defines a norm for L1(R)
b) Let be f and g two non-zero functions such that at no point x∈R both are different from zero. Verify that:
b.1 ∣∣f±g∣∣=∣∣f∣∣+∣∣g∣∣
b.2 ∣∣f+g∣∣2+∣∣f⋅g∣∣2=2(∣∣f∣∣+∣∣g∣∣)2
b.3 Conclude that the parallelogram law is not satisfied, and therefore, L1(R) is NOT a space with inner product