cooldog182
New member
- Joined
- May 2, 2006
- Messages
- 17
Sorry about how I have formatted this but I have to show for all integers n, k>=1 that
(n+1 over k) = (n+1 / k)(n over k-1)
now, since
(n over r) = n! / r!(n-r)!
and
(n over r) + (n over r-1) = (n! / r!(n-r)!) + (n! / (r-1)!(n-r+1)!)
this also equals
= (n+1 over r)
I have been able to have a bit of a go at it.
--------------MY TRY-----------
(n+1)! / k!(n-k)! = (n+1/k) (n! / (k-1)!(n-k+1)!)
= (n+1)! / (k(k-1)!(n-k+1)!
and since
k(k-1)!= k!
then we really want k(n-k+1)! to equal (n-k)!
but as far as I can see, this isn't right.
What am I doing wrong?
[/tex]
(n+1 over k) = (n+1 / k)(n over k-1)
now, since
(n over r) = n! / r!(n-r)!
and
(n over r) + (n over r-1) = (n! / r!(n-r)!) + (n! / (r-1)!(n-r+1)!)
this also equals
= (n+1 over r)
I have been able to have a bit of a go at it.
--------------MY TRY-----------
(n+1)! / k!(n-k)! = (n+1/k) (n! / (k-1)!(n-k+1)!)
= (n+1)! / (k(k-1)!(n-k+1)!
and since
k(k-1)!= k!
then we really want k(n-k+1)! to equal (n-k)!
but as far as I can see, this isn't right.
What am I doing wrong?
[/tex]