Oguz Khagan
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- Joined
- Jan 1, 2021
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Hi everyone! before beginning the question, sorry if it is somewhat dumb. I am new to derivatives and try to understand things.
Let's suppose f is differentiable and f(x) = a. f being a constant function; whatever number we input (1, π, e, etc., even a itself), it will always output the number a. If we want to take the derivative of f(x), we will consider a as a.x0 and thus f'(x) =0.a.x-1, which is 0. So, again whatever number we input f', it will always be 0. f'(1) = 0, f'(π) = 0, and f'(a) = 0.
Now, if we decide to take the derivative of f(a), by the same logic how the derivative of f(x) = x is 1, we will consider the derivative of f(a) = a is 1. So here comes the contradiction: we previously found f'(a) = 0 and now f'(a) = 1.
My question is, why is there such negotiation, and should we consider either of them correct? If so which one and why?
Let's suppose f is differentiable and f(x) = a. f being a constant function; whatever number we input (1, π, e, etc., even a itself), it will always output the number a. If we want to take the derivative of f(x), we will consider a as a.x0 and thus f'(x) =0.a.x-1, which is 0. So, again whatever number we input f', it will always be 0. f'(1) = 0, f'(π) = 0, and f'(a) = 0.
Now, if we decide to take the derivative of f(a), by the same logic how the derivative of f(x) = x is 1, we will consider the derivative of f(a) = a is 1. So here comes the contradiction: we previously found f'(a) = 0 and now f'(a) = 1.
My question is, why is there such negotiation, and should we consider either of them correct? If so which one and why?