Hi there,
I'm currently trying to review some concepts before a final. I have a sample question which is currently confusing me, and would appreciate some help.
The question goes:
Let X be a random variable with density fX and CDF FX, and let F-1X be inverse function of FX.
Show that for the uniform distribution U over [0, 1], the distribution of the random variable F-1X(U) is the same as that of X. Note that F-1X is the inverse function of FX applied to U.
I'm currently trying to review some concepts before a final. I have a sample question which is currently confusing me, and would appreciate some help.
The question goes:
Let X be a random variable with density fX and CDF FX, and let F-1X be inverse function of FX.
Show that for the uniform distribution U over [0, 1], the distribution of the random variable F-1X(U) is the same as that of X. Note that F-1X is the inverse function of FX applied to U.