So there is a substitution and the definite integral becomes:
\(\displaystyle \frac{\pi}{2}=\int^a_{-a}\sqrt{1-\frac{t^2}{a^2}\;\frac{dt}{a}}\)
So then if both sides of the definite integral are multiplied by \(\displaystyle a^2\) I have:
\(\displaystyle \frac{\pi a^2}{2}=\int^a_{-a}\sqrt{a^2-t^2}\;dt\)
The solutions manual seems to say that:
\(\displaystyle \frac{\pi a^2}{2}=\frac{1}{a^2}\int^a_{-a}\sqrt{a^2-t^2}\;dt\)
So my question is how would there be a \(\displaystyle \frac{1}{a^2}\)? I don't really see where the \(\displaystyle \frac{1}{a^2}\) is coming from.
Thanks in advance for any help on this problem...