Hi guys im trying to solve the following problem: integral∞0(cos(ax) − cos(bx))/x^2 dx
Using Leibniz differentiation rule. I have tried by first parameterizing x^2 to x^t and then using Leibniz differentiation rule. I then get the integrand: x^tln(x)(cos(ax) − cos(bx). However this doesn't seem to help at all. Would someone be able to give me a hint on how they think I could evaluate the integral using the differentiation under the integral sign method.
Thanks in advance.
-Leo
Using Leibniz differentiation rule. I have tried by first parameterizing x^2 to x^t and then using Leibniz differentiation rule. I then get the integrand: x^tln(x)(cos(ax) − cos(bx). However this doesn't seem to help at all. Would someone be able to give me a hint on how they think I could evaluate the integral using the differentiation under the integral sign method.
Thanks in advance.
-Leo