Eigenvalues of an Invertible Matrix

phatalerror

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May 3, 2006
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My Linear Algebra textbook omits a proof for if lambda is an eigenvalue of an invertible matrix (non-zero of course), then 1 / lambda is an eigenvalue of the inverse of said matrix. Anyone care to share?
 
Suppose Ax=λx\displaystyle Ax={\lambda}x where A is invertible.

Then x=A1Ax=A1λx=λA1x\displaystyle x=A^{-1}Ax=A^{-1}{\lambda}x={\lambda}A^{-1}x

Since A is invertible, we know that λ0\displaystyle {\lambda}\neq{0}.

Therefore, A1x=1λx\displaystyle A^{-1}x=\frac{1}{\lambda}x

So, 1λ\displaystyle \frac{1}{{\lambda}} is an eigenvalue of A1\displaystyle A^{-1} and x is the eigenvector.
 
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