That is a false statement.
The quadratic equation x2−(1+i)x+i=0 has two roots, 1&i.
The statement should should read a quadratic equation with real coefficients can't have only one imaginary root.
The reason being in x2+ax+c=0 because −a is sum of the roots and c is product of the roots.
But a&c are both real numbers, that is impossible if only one of the roots were imaginary.
Another way of looking at it: if quadratic equation, ax2+bx+c=0 has roots, x0 and x1, then we must have a(x−x0)(x−x−1)=ax3−a(x0+x1)x+ax0x1 so that a(x0+x1)=b and ax0x1=c. If all coefficents, a, b, and c are real, then x0+x1=b/c and x0x1=c/a must be real.
From that it follows that if there is one non-real (strictly speaking not just "imaginary") root, then the other must not only be non-real but must be the complex conjugate of the other.
Yet another way to see it: if ax2+bx+c=0, then, by the quadratic formula, x=−2ab±2ab2−4ac. In order that there be any non-real root, b2−4ac must be negative. And in that case, the "± must give two complex conjugate complex numbers.
Plus and minus lead to two different possible roots of a quadratic unless e2 = 0. If e2 > 0, both roots are real. If e2 < 0, both roots are complex (meaning that they include an "imaginary" part). Make sense now?
PS Looking at PKA's and Hall's posts, I see I should have made clear that I was talking about a quadratic with real coefficients. I tend to make the dangerous assumption that we are dealing with real numbers unless it is disclosed otherwise.
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