M Miyengar New member Joined Oct 2, 2005 Messages 5 Oct 2, 2005 #1 If f'(x) = g'(x) for all X, we know that f(x) need not egual g(x) for all values of x, right? What's the relationship between f(x) and g(x)? How do we prove this relationship? Thanks!
If f'(x) = g'(x) for all X, we know that f(x) need not egual g(x) for all values of x, right? What's the relationship between f(x) and g(x)? How do we prove this relationship? Thanks!
M Matt Junior Member Joined Jul 3, 2005 Messages 183 Oct 2, 2005 #2 They differ by at most a constant. From the fact that f'(x)=g'(x) for all x, you know that (f-g)'(x)=0 for all x. Integrate both sides of this equation to obtain the desired result.
They differ by at most a constant. From the fact that f'(x)=g'(x) for all x, you know that (f-g)'(x)=0 for all x. Integrate both sides of this equation to obtain the desired result.
M Miyengar New member Joined Oct 2, 2005 Messages 5 Oct 2, 2005 #3 Thanks! Stupid question, but how do you integrate both sides? Thanks, again
