GeniusAreMade
New member
- Joined
- Oct 11, 2020
- Messages
- 10
Can someone give me a mathematical proof to prove that the negation of "for all x" is "there exists an x"
The question you ask goes all the way back to Aristotle in about the second century BCE.Can someone give me a mathematical proof to prove that the negation of "for all x" is "there exists an x"