bumblebee123
Junior Member
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- Jan 3, 2018
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If α∈IV then 0≤cos(α)≤1tan(α)≤0question: Why FALSE??
II The equation tan(x)+cos(x)=2 has a solution in [−2π,0]
can anyone explain this to me? any help would be really appreciated!
Let's look at the first statement. Consider:
[MATH]-1\le\sin(x)\le1[/MATH]
[MATH]-1\le\cos(x)\le1[/MATH]
Even if the sine and cosine functions reached their maxima for the same value of x (which they don't), what would be the maximum value of their sum?
For the 3rd statement, consider:
[MATH]-\infty<\tan(x)<0[/MATH]
[MATH]0<\sin(x)<1[/MATH]
And so, when you subtract the latter, from the former, what do you get?
No No, the tanx values are NOT infinite. The tanx values go from -infinity to positive infinity and obtains every value in between. That is there is an x value such that tan(x) = 1.3, there is an x value such that tan(x) = -125.6, there is an x value such that tan(x) = 12,365,497,098,000,345,000,000.00125, ....for part 2
the Y values for tanx are infinite, and the maximum Y value for cosx is 1
so the sum of the maximum values would be way bigger than 2
Domain of investigation is -90o → 0oOkay that makes more sense. How can I use this to prove tanx + cosx = 2 is wrong