ughh....
my head is about to explode..
here's the question
Suppose (f o g)(x) = 1/(x-2) and (g o f)(x) = (1-x)/(x-3)
a) find f(x) and g(x)
b) Are f(x) and g(x) inverse functions? Explain
I think I have a little clue about b)...
since inverse functions have to satisfy the (f o g)(x) = (g o f)(x) = x equation
i know that they are not inverse functions
but i don't have a single clue about a)...
plz help...
my head is about to explode..
here's the question
Suppose (f o g)(x) = 1/(x-2) and (g o f)(x) = (1-x)/(x-3)
a) find f(x) and g(x)
b) Are f(x) and g(x) inverse functions? Explain
I think I have a little clue about b)...
since inverse functions have to satisfy the (f o g)(x) = (g o f)(x) = x equation
i know that they are not inverse functions
but i don't have a single clue about a)...
plz help...