renegade05
Full Member
- Joined
- Sep 10, 2010
- Messages
- 260
So the problem reads:
Use the general solution to solve the homogeneous wave equation on the half-line, with homogeneous initial conditions, and a non-homogeneous Neumann boundary condition.
\(\displaystyle u_{tt} - c^2 u_{xx} = 0, \quad\quad \quad \quad 0 < x < \infty,\quad t>0\)
\(\displaystyle u(x,0)=0, u_t (x,0)=0 \quad (For \quad All \quad 0 < x < \infty)\)
\(\displaystyle u_x(0,t)=h(t) \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad(For \quad All \quad t > 0)\)
I know the general solution has form:
\(\displaystyle u(x,t) = F(x-ct) + G(x-ct)\)
From the initial conditions, boundary conditions I get that:
\(\displaystyle
(1) F(x) + G(x) = 0\)
\(\displaystyle (2) -cF'(x) + cG'(x) = 0\)
\(\displaystyle (3) F'(-ct)+G'(ct) = h(t)
\)
From the first two it is clear that F(x) = G(x) = 0 ??
The third one is proving difficult. I tried to let z = -ct to get:
F'(z)+G'(-z) = h (-z/c)
Then:
\(\displaystyle F(z) - G(-z) = \int_{0}^{z} h(-n/c) dn\)
but if F(x) = G(x) = 0 then so does this integral which is trivial. Where am I going wrong? What is the answer to this one? Thanks!
Use the general solution to solve the homogeneous wave equation on the half-line, with homogeneous initial conditions, and a non-homogeneous Neumann boundary condition.
\(\displaystyle u_{tt} - c^2 u_{xx} = 0, \quad\quad \quad \quad 0 < x < \infty,\quad t>0\)
\(\displaystyle u(x,0)=0, u_t (x,0)=0 \quad (For \quad All \quad 0 < x < \infty)\)
\(\displaystyle u_x(0,t)=h(t) \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad(For \quad All \quad t > 0)\)
I know the general solution has form:
\(\displaystyle u(x,t) = F(x-ct) + G(x-ct)\)
From the initial conditions, boundary conditions I get that:
\(\displaystyle
(1) F(x) + G(x) = 0\)
\(\displaystyle (2) -cF'(x) + cG'(x) = 0\)
\(\displaystyle (3) F'(-ct)+G'(ct) = h(t)
\)
From the first two it is clear that F(x) = G(x) = 0 ??
The third one is proving difficult. I tried to let z = -ct to get:
F'(z)+G'(-z) = h (-z/c)
Then:
\(\displaystyle F(z) - G(-z) = \int_{0}^{z} h(-n/c) dn\)
but if F(x) = G(x) = 0 then so does this integral which is trivial. Where am I going wrong? What is the answer to this one? Thanks!