Subhotosh Khan said:
Area of OQS = 1/2 * (QS) * (OP) = 12 .... where is the problem???
I don't think one can argue that triangles QRS and OPS are similar.
Using the proportion QR/OP = QS/OS, and substituting the given values, we find get
5/4 = 6/(OS) and OS = 4.8
So...we have a triangle OPS which is a RIGHT triangle....leg OP is 4, leg is PS (which is PQ + QS since Q is shown BETWEEN P and S), and the hypotenuse is 4.8. BUT....QS = 6 as given in the diagram. If we let x = PQ, then PS = x + 6
Using the Pythagorean theorem, we have
4[sup:3gcf5u35]2[/sup:3gcf5u35] + (x + 6)[sup:3gcf5u35]2[/sup:3gcf5u35] = 4.8[sup:3gcf5u35]2[/sup:3gcf5u35]
16 + (x + 6)[sup:3gcf5u35]2[/sup:3gcf5u35] = 23.04
(x + 6)[sup:3gcf5u35]2[/sup:3gcf5u35] = 7.04
x + 6 =
+ 2.65
x = -8.65 or x = -3.35
Don't you see a problem here? x was defined to represent the length of segment PQ. A length cannot be negative.
If you simply accept on faith that OS
really is 4.8, then yes, the area of the triangle in question would compute to 12. But I stand my ground. The situation depicted in the diagram is impossible. Aren't we supposed to check to make sure the conditions in a problem make sense?