Prove that for every real number x there is a real number y such that for every real number z, yz=(x+z)2−(x2+z2).
Can anyone give feedback on my proof thanks!
Suppose x0 is an arbitrary element of R.
Let y′=2x0 and y′∈R
Suppose z0 is an arbitrary element of R.
Then y′z0=2x0z0=(x0+z0)2−(x02+z02)
Since z0 was arbitrary we conclude
∀z∈R(y′z=(x0+z)2−(x02+z2))
Therefore ∃y∈R∀z∈R(yz=(x0+z)2−(x02+z2))
Since x0 was arbitrary,
∀x∈R∃y∈R∀z∈R(yz=(x+z)2−(x2+z2))
Can anyone give feedback on my proof thanks!
Suppose x0 is an arbitrary element of R.
Let y′=2x0 and y′∈R
Suppose z0 is an arbitrary element of R.
Then y′z0=2x0z0=(x0+z0)2−(x02+z02)
Since z0 was arbitrary we conclude
∀z∈R(y′z=(x0+z)2−(x02+z2))
Therefore ∃y∈R∀z∈R(yz=(x0+z)2−(x02+z2))
Since x0 was arbitrary,
∀x∈R∃y∈R∀z∈R(yz=(x+z)2−(x2+z2))