Prove that for every real number \(\displaystyle x\) there is a real number \(\displaystyle y\) such that for every real number \(\displaystyle z\), \(\displaystyle yz = (x+z)^2 - (x^2+z^2)\).
Can anyone give feedback on my proof thanks!
Suppose \(\displaystyle x_0\) is an arbitrary element of R.
Let \(\displaystyle y' = 2x_0\) and \(\displaystyle y' \in R\)
Suppose \(\displaystyle z_0\) is an arbitrary element of R.
Then \(\displaystyle y'z_0 = 2x_0z_0 = (x_0 + z_0)^2 - (x_0^2 + z_0^2)\)
Since \(\displaystyle z_0\) was arbitrary we conclude
\(\displaystyle \forall z \in R (y'z= (x_0 + z )^2 - (x_0^2 + z^2))\)
Therefore \(\displaystyle \exists y \in R \forall z \in R (yz= (x_0 + z )^2 - (x_0^2 + z^2))\)
Since \(\displaystyle x_0\) was arbitrary,
\(\displaystyle \forall x \in R \exists y \in R \forall z \in R (yz= (x + z )^2 - (x^2 + z^2))\)
Can anyone give feedback on my proof thanks!
Suppose \(\displaystyle x_0\) is an arbitrary element of R.
Let \(\displaystyle y' = 2x_0\) and \(\displaystyle y' \in R\)
Suppose \(\displaystyle z_0\) is an arbitrary element of R.
Then \(\displaystyle y'z_0 = 2x_0z_0 = (x_0 + z_0)^2 - (x_0^2 + z_0^2)\)
Since \(\displaystyle z_0\) was arbitrary we conclude
\(\displaystyle \forall z \in R (y'z= (x_0 + z )^2 - (x_0^2 + z^2))\)
Therefore \(\displaystyle \exists y \in R \forall z \in R (yz= (x_0 + z )^2 - (x_0^2 + z^2))\)
Since \(\displaystyle x_0\) was arbitrary,
\(\displaystyle \forall x \in R \exists y \in R \forall z \in R (yz= (x + z )^2 - (x^2 + z^2))\)