Improper Integrals

[sd1234]

integrate 1/(x^(2)-a^(2)) from b to infinity. assume b>a>0

 

[stapel]

integrate 1/(x^(2)-a^(2)) from b to infinity. assume b>a>0

What do you get as the indefinite integral, using inverse-trig derivatives?

 

[pka]

integrate 1/(x^(2)-a^(2)) from b to infinity. assume b>a>0

Because \(\displaystyle b > a > 0\) the integral \(\displaystyle \int_b^\infty {\frac{{dx}}{{{x^2} - {a^2}}}} \) exists.