I have a question about the direction I am going with a certain inequality proof . Here is the statement for the proof:
Suppose x>3 and y<2, then x^2-2*y>5. hint: used the theorem that if 0<a<b then a^2<b^2
Proof:
Assume x>3 and y<2 is true. When the inequality y<2 is multiply by -2, then y<2 ==> -2y>4. When the inequality x>3 is multiplied by the number 3, x>3 ==> 3*x>3*3==> 3*x>9. Similarly , when the inequality x>3 is multiplied by x, then x>3 ==> x^2>3*x. Since 3*x>9 and since x^2 >3*x, then x^2>9. Now I have -2*y>4 and x^2>9, adding the two inequalities together, I get x^2-2y>9-4 ==> x^2-2*y>5.
Is this proof right or am I AT LEAST going in the right direction with this proof. I would appreciate some feedback.
Suppose x>3 and y<2, then x^2-2*y>5. hint: used the theorem that if 0<a<b then a^2<b^2
Proof:
Assume x>3 and y<2 is true. When the inequality y<2 is multiply by -2, then y<2 ==> -2y>4. When the inequality x>3 is multiplied by the number 3, x>3 ==> 3*x>3*3==> 3*x>9. Similarly , when the inequality x>3 is multiplied by x, then x>3 ==> x^2>3*x. Since 3*x>9 and since x^2 >3*x, then x^2>9. Now I have -2*y>4 and x^2>9, adding the two inequalities together, I get x^2-2y>9-4 ==> x^2-2*y>5.
Is this proof right or am I AT LEAST going in the right direction with this proof. I would appreciate some feedback.