I know that
\(\displaystyle ∫u(t−a)dt=tu(t−a)\)
where u(t) is the unit step function. Does this mean that any arbitrary function multiplied by u(t) is just the integral of that function multiplied by u(t), and I don't have to do integration by parts? For example,
\(\displaystyle ∫u(t−a)costdt=u(t−a)∫costdt\)
and not
\(\displaystyle ∫u(t−a)costdt=u(t−a)sint−∫tu(t−a)costdt\)
?
And my 2nd question is how in the world do you solve
\(\displaystyle ∫u(−t+a)dt\)
and how would you graph this?
Nextly, I assume that
\(\displaystyle f(t)u(t−a)u(t−b)=f(t),t⩾a\)
if a > b. Basically, the function only "turns on" when both unit steps are 1. Is this true? If so, would the following equal 0 since the 2 unit step functions do not overlap?
\(\displaystyle f(t)u(t−1)u(t+1)\)
\(\displaystyle ∫u(t−a)dt=tu(t−a)\)
where u(t) is the unit step function. Does this mean that any arbitrary function multiplied by u(t) is just the integral of that function multiplied by u(t), and I don't have to do integration by parts? For example,
\(\displaystyle ∫u(t−a)costdt=u(t−a)∫costdt\)
and not
\(\displaystyle ∫u(t−a)costdt=u(t−a)sint−∫tu(t−a)costdt\)
?
And my 2nd question is how in the world do you solve
\(\displaystyle ∫u(−t+a)dt\)
and how would you graph this?
Nextly, I assume that
\(\displaystyle f(t)u(t−a)u(t−b)=f(t),t⩾a\)
if a > b. Basically, the function only "turns on" when both unit steps are 1. Is this true? If so, would the following equal 0 since the 2 unit step functions do not overlap?
\(\displaystyle f(t)u(t−1)u(t+1)\)