borchester
New member
- Joined
- Jun 19, 2021
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Can you show us what circles you've been going around in? Please show us your work.
Hint: If [imath]x = sec( \theta )[/imath] then what is [imath]x^2 - 1[/imath]? What is dx?
-Dan
Hi.
Thanks for the quick response. My knowledge of computers is less than that of the integral calculus, so apologies for the mess
if x = secΘ
then x^2 = (secΘ)^2
and x^2 -1 = (secΘ)^2 -1 = (1/(cosΘ^2)) -1 = (1-cosΘ^2)/(cosΘ ^2) =
(sinΘ^2)/(cosΘ^2)
Therefore
1/((x^2-1)^3/2) = cosΘ^2/sinΘ^2
***************
If x = sec Θ then x = 1/cosΘ
and using the quotient rule where dx/dΘ = (vdu/dΘ -udv/dΘ)/(v^2)
and v = cosΘ, u = 1, dv/dΘ =-sinΘ and du/dΘ = 0
Therefore
dx/dΘ = ( cosΘ x 0 - 1 x (-sinΘ))/ (cosΘ^2) = sinΘ/ cosΘ^2
therefore dx = (sinΘ / cosΘ^2)dΘ
++++++++++++++++++++
(cosΘ^2)/sin^Θ)x(sin^Θ/cosΘ^2) = 1/sinΘ = secΘ
That wasn't the answer I had before, but it seems doable
Can you guys check my workings?
Many thanks
Incorrect - What happened to ^3/2 ? Try again......1/((x^2-1)^3/2) = cosΘ^2/sinΘ^2
Lad, I have been working on this problem for a month and I was hoping for some help. If you can't be bothered then thanks, but no thanks
That is what we were doing -Can you guys check my workings?
if x = secΘ
...
1/((x^2-1)^3/2) = cosΘ^2/sinΘ^2
...
dx/dΘ = ( cosΘ x 0 - 1 x (-sinΘ))/ (cosΘ^2) = sinΘ/ cosΘ^2
therefore dx = (sinΘ / cosΘ^2)dΘ
Can you guys check my workings?
Lad, I have been working on this problem for a month and I was hoping for some help. If you can't be bothered then thanks, but no thanks
You are making this waaaay too difficult.Hi.
Thanks for the quick response. My knowledge of computers is less than that of the integral calculus, so apologies for the mess
if x = secΘ
then x^2 = (secΘ)^2
and x^2 -1 = (secΘ)^2 -1 = (1/(cosΘ^2)) -1 = (1-cosΘ^2)/(cosΘ ^2) =
(sinΘ^2)/(cosΘ^2)
Therefore
1/((x^2-1)^3/2) = cosΘ^2/sinΘ^2
***************
If x = sec Θ then x = 1/cosΘ
and using the quotient rule where dx/dΘ = (vdu/dΘ -udv/dΘ)/(v^2)
and v = cosΘ, u = 1, dv/dΘ =-sinΘ and du/dΘ = 0
Therefore
dx/dΘ = ( cosΘ x 0 - 1 x (-sinΘ))/ (cosΘ^2) = sinΘ/ cosΘ^2
therefore dx = (sinΘ / cosΘ^2)dΘ
++++++++++++++++++++
(cosΘ^2)/sin^Θ)x(sin^Θ/cosΘ^2) = 1/sinΘ = secΘ
That wasn't the answer I had before, but it seems doable
Can you guys check my workings?
Many thanks
Many thanks, I will give it a shot.He did check your workings, just as you asked. He told you that 1/((x^2-1)^(3/2)) = cosΘ^2/sinΘ^2 is a little wrong. It should be (cosΘ^2/sinΘ^2)^(3/2).
Do you see that?
Take it from there, and you should get the answer.
Many thanksYou are making this waaaay too difficult.
[imath]x = sec( \theta )[/imath]
So [imath]x^2 - 1 = sec^2( \theta ) - 1 = tan^2( \theta )[/imath]
and [imath]dx = sec( \theta ) ~ tan( \theta ) ~d \theta[/imath]
Your integral turns into
[math]\int \dfrac{dx}{(x^2 - 1)^{3/2}} = \int \dfrac{ sec( \theta ) ~ tan( \theta ) ~ d \theta }{(tan^2( \theta ))^{3/2} }[/math]
See what you can do with this.
-Dan
And many thanks. I have a tendency to confuse sec with cosec, but this has put me straightYou are making this waaaay too difficult.
[imath]x = sec( \theta )[/imath]
So [imath]x^2 - 1 = sec^2( \theta ) - 1 = tan^2( \theta )[/imath]
and [imath]dx = sec( \theta ) ~ tan( \theta ) ~d \theta[/imath]
Your integral turns into
[math]\int \dfrac{dx}{(x^2 - 1)^{3/2}} = \int \dfrac{ sec( \theta ) ~ tan( \theta ) ~ d \theta }{(tan^2( \theta ))^{3/2} }[/math]
See what you can do with this.
-Dan