inverse of a cos function?

\(\displaystyle cos \ function \ hasn't \ any \ inverse \ as \ it \ isn't \ 1-to-1.\)

\(\displaystyle However, \ if \ we \ restrict \ cos(x) \ to \ 0 \ \le \ x \ \le \ \pi, now \ since \ cos(x) \ is\)

\(\displaystyle monotonic, \ it \ has \ an \ inverse: \ see \ graph.\)

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