What does the inverse of a cos function look like?
H hannaboox3 New member Joined Sep 4, 2010 Messages 2 Sep 8, 2010 #1 What does the inverse of a cos function look like?
B BigGlenntheHeavy Senior Member Joined Mar 8, 2009 Messages 1,577 Sep 8, 2010 #2 cos function hasn′t any inverse as it isn′t 1−to−1.\displaystyle cos \ function \ hasn't \ any \ inverse \ as \ it \ isn't \ 1-to-1.cos function hasn′t any inverse as it isn′t 1−to−1. However, if we restrict cos(x) to 0 ≤ x ≤ π,now since cos(x) is\displaystyle However, \ if \ we \ restrict \ cos(x) \ to \ 0 \ \le \ x \ \le \ \pi, now \ since \ cos(x) \ isHowever, if we restrict cos(x) to 0 ≤ x ≤ π,now since cos(x) is monotonic, it has an inverse: see graph.\displaystyle monotonic, \ it \ has \ an \ inverse: \ see \ graph.monotonic, it has an inverse: see graph. [attachment=0:3smghxfe]bbb.jpg[/attachment:3smghxfe]
cos function hasn′t any inverse as it isn′t 1−to−1.\displaystyle cos \ function \ hasn't \ any \ inverse \ as \ it \ isn't \ 1-to-1.cos function hasn′t any inverse as it isn′t 1−to−1. However, if we restrict cos(x) to 0 ≤ x ≤ π,now since cos(x) is\displaystyle However, \ if \ we \ restrict \ cos(x) \ to \ 0 \ \le \ x \ \le \ \pi, now \ since \ cos(x) \ isHowever, if we restrict cos(x) to 0 ≤ x ≤ π,now since cos(x) is monotonic, it has an inverse: see graph.\displaystyle monotonic, \ it \ has \ an \ inverse: \ see \ graph.monotonic, it has an inverse: see graph. [attachment=0:3smghxfe]bbb.jpg[/attachment:3smghxfe]
