pisrationalhahaha
New member
- Joined
- Aug 22, 2017
- Messages
- 46
Hi
Is the inverse of a function always a function ?
I asked myself this question because of an exercise that I was solving but couldn't find an answer.
We have f(x)=1+sinx defined over [2−π,2π]
Let's see its curve on the graph and also the one of its inverse:

The inverse's curve doesn't seem to be a function to me (maybe I'm missing some information in my mind).
A function is a map (every x has a unique y-value), while on the inverse's curve some x-values have 2 y-values.
By doing some calculations, I get f−1(x)=arcsin(x2−1)
Its curve (the one I calculated) is like that (the grey one below):

The part defined over negative x of this curve shocked me.
Can someone explain to me how this can happen ?
And why shouldn't the grey curve be like the purple one ?
Is the inverse of a function always a function ?
I asked myself this question because of an exercise that I was solving but couldn't find an answer.
We have f(x)=1+sinx defined over [2−π,2π]
Let's see its curve on the graph and also the one of its inverse:

The inverse's curve doesn't seem to be a function to me (maybe I'm missing some information in my mind).
A function is a map (every x has a unique y-value), while on the inverse's curve some x-values have 2 y-values.
By doing some calculations, I get f−1(x)=arcsin(x2−1)
Its curve (the one I calculated) is like that (the grey one below):

The part defined over negative x of this curve shocked me.
Can someone explain to me how this can happen ?
And why shouldn't the grey curve be like the purple one ?
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