Limit of a summation

dunkelheit

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[MATH]\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{n}{n+2} \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{k}{k+3}[/MATH]My attempt: since [MATH]\frac{k}{k+3}[/MATH] is increasing for [MATH]k \geq 1[/MATH] we have that [MATH]\frac{k}{k+3} \geq \frac{1}{4}[/MATH] for all [MATH]k \geq 1[/MATH]; since it holds for all [MATH]k \geq 1[/MATH] it holds if we sum up to [MATH]n[/MATH], hence
[MATH]\sum_{k=1}^n \frac{k}{k+3} \geq \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{4} = \frac{n}{4}[/MATH]Since [MATH]n\in\mathbb{N}[/MATH] it is [MATH]\frac{n}{n+2} \geq 0[/MATH] so we can multiply both sides of the inequality by [MATH]\frac{n}{n+2}[/MATH] and not changing the verse of the inequality, so
[MATH]\frac{n}{n+2}\sum_{k=1}^n \frac{k}{k+3} \geq \frac{n}{4}\frac{n}{n+2}[/MATH]Letting [MATH]n \to \infty[/MATH] both sides we have
[MATH]\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{n}{n+2}\sum_{k=1}^n \frac{k}{k+3} \geq \lim_{n \to \infty}\frac{n}{4}\frac{n}{n+2}=\infty[/MATH]So by comparison
[MATH]\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{n}{n+2} \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{k}{k+3}=\infty[/MATH]Is this correct? Any advice or suggestion for improving is welcome, thanks.
 
It looks fine to me.

Although what you did was better than what I would have done, here is what I would have done.

I would have realized k/(k+3) as (k+3)/(k+3) - 3/(k+3) = 1 - 3/(k+3) and found the sum of that. But again, your method was elegant. Great job!
 
Thanks for your confirmation and thanks for the compliments! How would you calculate that sum? The only thing I can think of is writing it as a Riemann sum by letting [MATH]k+3=j[/MATH] and adding/subtracting terms to write it as an integral.
 
Well the sum of the 1's would be n

In the 2nd sum you can factor out the 3. So basically you want to sum up 1/(k+3) from 1 to n. You will get 1/4 + 1/5 +1/6 + ... + 1/n = (1/1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/4 + 1/5 +1/6 + ... + 1/n) - (1/1+1/2 +1/3) Now to be honest I was thinking that this was a geometric series and was thinking that this would be easy to compute. However this is not geometric so scratch my idea!
 
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