It's not clear to me what you have done! I see that you have written out the polynomial \(\displaystyle \frac{1}{4}x^4-\frac{2}{3}x^3+\frac{1}{2}x^2- \frac{1}{2}x\), then shown that same polynomial evaluated at x= 1.565, divided by 1.565 and set them equal. Why? Do you not know what the "mean value theorem" is? It does NOT say that the polynomial is equal to that quotient. It says that, at some value of x between 0 and 1.565, the derivative of the polynomial is equal to that quotient.
Now, what number did you get for that quotient? The derivative of \(\displaystyle \frac{1}{4}x^4-\frac{2}{3}x^3+\frac{1}{2}x^2- \frac{1}{2}x\) is \(\displaystyle x^3- 2x^2+ x- \frac{1}{2}\). How many values of x, between 0 and 1.565 is that derivative equal to the quotient?
I get -0.39207 for the quotient and when I graph \(\displaystyle y= x^3- 2x^3+ x- \frac{1}{2}\) and \(\displaystyle y= -0.39207\) they cross three times.