X Xtal New member Joined May 21, 2013 Messages 6 May 23, 2013 #1 Does this question make sense? What percentages of subjects are included in 1 SD, 2 SDs, or 3 SDs from the mean? That is all it says.
Does this question make sense? What percentages of subjects are included in 1 SD, 2 SDs, or 3 SDs from the mean? That is all it says.
tkhunny Moderator Staff member Joined Apr 12, 2005 Messages 11,325 May 23, 2013 #2 If you have a Standard Normal Distribution, it makes perfect sense and refers to what is often known as "The Empirical Rule".
If you have a Standard Normal Distribution, it makes perfect sense and refers to what is often known as "The Empirical Rule".
