M Miyengar New member Joined Oct 2, 2005 Messages 5 Oct 2, 2005 #1 If f'(x) = g'(x) for all X, we know that f(x) need not egual g(x) for all values of x, right? What's the relationship between f(x) and g(x)? How do we prove this relationship? Thanks!
If f'(x) = g'(x) for all X, we know that f(x) need not egual g(x) for all values of x, right? What's the relationship between f(x) and g(x)? How do we prove this relationship? Thanks!
